Saturday, May 16, 2026

Kerala PSC – Assistant Professor in Pharmacy 2026

Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT) Models




Question Paper Code: 88/2026/OL

Category Code: 691/2025

Department: Medical Education

Date of Test: 09-05-2026  



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Question 1


The principal cinchona alkaloid used therapeutically as an antiprotozoal drug ____________.

A) Chloroquine

B) Amodiaquine

C) Quinine

D) Quinidine


Correct Answer: C) Quinine



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Question 2


Which among the following opium compounds lacks narcotic properties?

A) Thebaine

B) Codeine

C) Hydrocodone

D) Narcotine


Correct Answer: D) Narcotine



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Question 3


Which among the following is an example of a colorful tetraterpene compound?

A) Ambergris

B) Beta-carotene

C) Chlorophyll

D) Azadirachtin


Correct Answer: B) Beta-carotene



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Question 4


The reagent used to liberate alkaloids as salts from plant components is ____________.

A) Potassium nitrate

B) Sodium bicarbonate

C) Methanol

D) Sodium carbonate


Correct Answer: D) Sodium carbonate



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Question 5


Raymond's test is a chemical test for:

A) Cardiac glycosides

B) Flavanoids

C) Lignin

D) Hydroxy anthraquinones


Correct Answer: A) Cardiac glycosides



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Question 6


The plant growth regulator used in the brewing industry to speed up the malting process is ____________.

A) Ethylene

B) Auxin

C) Gibberellic acid

D) Abscisic acid


Correct Answer: C) Gibberellic acid



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Question 7


Which among the following contains both alkaloid and glycoside as its constituents?

A) Digitalis

B) Senna

C) Nux vomica

D) Aloe


Correct Answer: C) Nux vomica



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Question 8


The marine derived compound which has anti parasitic action and also used in epilepsy modelling is ____________.

A) Acanthofolicin

B) Bryostatin

C) Kainic acid

D) Bengamide F


Correct Answer: C) Kainic acid



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Question 9


The colour of fluorescence observed during Schoenteten's test is ____________.

A) Green

B) Orange

C) Yellow

D) Red


Correct Answer: A) Green



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Question 10


When a transverse section of Clove is treated with a strong solution of potassium hydroxide ____________ shaped crystals are formed.

A) Cluster

B) Acicular

C) Rosette

D) All of the above


Correct Answer: B) Acicular



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Question 11


Some drugs are placed under orphan drugs due to the following factors except

A) Enormous cost of production

B) Non patentability of the drug

C) Their limited demand

D) Poor Quality


Correct Answer: D) Poor Quality



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Question 12


T1/2 of Paracetamol is

A) 1 hour

B) 2 hours

C) 3 hours

D) 4 hours


Correct Answer: B) 2 hours



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Question 13


Tachyphylaxis is

A) Acute tolerance to drugs

B) Chronic tolerance to drugs

C) Drug dependance

D) None of the above


Correct Answer: A) Acute tolerance to drugs



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Question 14


Cytokinesis begins in

A) Prophase

B) Late anaphase

C) Early metaphase

D) Telophase


Correct Answer: B) Late anaphase



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Question 15


Simple Cuboidal epithelium is found in

A) Small Intestine

B) Retina of eye

C) Gall Bladder

D) Uterine tube


Correct Answer: B) Retina of eye



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Question 16


The drug which undergoes Hoffman elimination

A) Phenobarbitone

B) Warfarin

C) Atracurium

D) Omeprazole


Correct Answer: C) Atracurium



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Question 17


During embryonic development, the percentage of cardiac muscle fibers that become autorhythmic fibers are:

A) About 1%

B) About 5%

C) About 7%

D) About 10%


Correct Answer: A) About 1%



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Question 18


Inspiration follows

A) Amonton's law

B) Pascal's law

C) Boyle's law

D) None of the above


Correct Answer: C) Boyle's law



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Question 19


Different stages of anaesthesia are except

A) Stage of Delirium

B) Medullary Paralysis

C) Stage of Analgesia

D) Stage of Depression


Correct Answer: D) Stage of Depression



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Question 20


Knee cap is otherwise termed as

A) Patella

B) Labra

C) Barsae

D) Symphyses


Correct Answer: A) Patella



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Question 21


An organism that cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome, leads to acute renal failure in children

A) Escherichia coli

B) Enterobacter cloacae

C) Enterobacter agglomerans

D) Citrobacter freundii


Correct Answer: A) Escherichia coli



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Question 22


Which food additive-containing preparation should be used with caution in children with Phenylketonuria?

A) Saccharin

B) Aspartame

C) Tartrazine

D) Allura red


Correct Answer: B) Aspartame



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Question 23


Schwartz equation, used to calculate creatinine clearance

A) Creatinine clearance = 42 × height / serum creatinine

B) Creatinine clearance = 38 × height / serum creatinine

C) Creatinine clearance = k × height / serum creatinine

D) Creatinine clearance = height / serum creatinine × weight


Correct Answer: C)



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Question 24


Recombinant portion of human parathyroid hormone used to reduce vertebral and non vertebral fractures in post menopausal woman

A) Teriparatide

B) Tirzepatide

C) Triptolide

D) Targretin


Correct Answer: A) Teriparatide



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Question 25


A drug that induce idiosyncratic (Type B) hepatotoxicity

A) Paracetamol

B) Methotrexate

C) Isoniazid

D) Iron


Correct Answer: C) Isoniazid



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Question 26


Secretary of Pharmacy and Therapeutic committee

A) Pharmacist

B) Physician

C) Nurse

D) Administrator


Correct Answer: A) Pharmacist



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Question 27


Specific antibody test used to detect Rheumatoid Arthritis even before symptoms become severe

A) Rheumatoid factor test

B) ANA

C) Anti cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody

D) ENA


Correct Answer: C) Anti cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody



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Question 28


Kaposi's sarcoma in people with HIV infection may be triggered by infection with

A) Human herpes virus 8

B) Helicobacter pylori

C) Human papilloma virus

D) Human herpes virus 4


Correct Answer: A) Human herpes virus 8



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Question 29


Left ventricular dysfunction can result from

A) Hypertension

B) Myocardial infarction

C) Defects in systolic contraction and diastolic relaxation

D) All above


Correct Answer: D) All above



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Question 30


Only anti TB drug that is bactericidal against all three population of MTB

A) Pyrazinamide

B) Rifampicin

C) Streptomycin

D) Isoniazid


Correct Answer: B) Rifampicin



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Question 31


Which of the following are examples for reversible anticholinesterases?

A) Physostigmine and Paraoxon

B) Neostigmine and Donepezil

C) Neostigmine and DFP

D) Physostigmine and Diazinon


Correct Answer: B) Neostigmine and Donepezil



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Question 32


Cyproheptadine primarily blocks

A) 5-HT2A receptor

B) 5-HT3 receptor

C) 5-HT1B/1D receptor

D) 5-HT2C receptor


Correct Answer: A) 5-HT2A receptor



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Question 33


Clinical use of 1, 3, 7 Trimethylxanthine is

A) Bronchial asthma

B) COPD

C) Apnoea in premature infants

D) Nocturnal asthma


Correct Answer: C) Apnoea in premature infants



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Question 34


Insulin aspart is an insulin analogue produced from human insulin by

A) Replacing aspartic acid with proline at B28

B) Replacing proline with aspartic acid at B28

C) Replacing aspartic acid with proline at B29

D) Replacing proline with aspartic acid at B29


Correct Answer: B) Replacing proline with aspartic acid at B28



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Question 35


Which of the following statement is incorrect

A) Zidovudine is a thymidine analogue

B) Abacavir is a guanosine analogue

C) Lamivudine is deoxycytidine analogue

D) Stavudine is fluorinated cytidine analogue


Correct Answer: D) Stavudine is fluorinated cytidine analogue



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Question 36


Drug of choice for treatment of Clostridium difficile superinfection is

A) Clindamycin

B) Metronidazole

C) Clarithromycin

D) Daptomycin


Correct Answer: B) Metronidazole



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Question 37


Mechanism of action of dutasteride in treatment of male pattern baldness is

A) 5α-reductase inhibition

B) PDE-5 inhibition

C) Suppress testosterone secretion

D) Suppress LH secretion


Correct Answer: A) 5α-reductase inhibition



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Question 38


Which among the following drugs causes greater cochlear damage?

A) Amikacin and Kanamycin

B) Streptomycin and Gentamicin

C) Clarithromycin and Erythromycin

D) Streptomycin and Tobramycin


Correct Answer: A) Amikacin and Kanamycin



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Question 39


Hypertrichosis occurs in patients receiving Minoxidil is probably a consequence of

A) Opening of Na+ channel

B) Opening of K+ channel

C) Opening of Ca2+ channel

D) Blocking of Na+ channel


Correct Answer: B) Opening of K+ channel



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Question 40


Quinine used for treatment of malaria is

A) Levo rotatory

B) Dextro rotatory

C) Racemic mixture

D) Diastereomer


Correct Answer: A) Levo rotatory




Question 41


In Karl Fischer method, one mole of water reacts with how many moles of iodine?

A) 0.25

B) 0.5

C) 1

D) 1.5


Correct Answer: C) 1



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Question 42


In reversed-phase chromatography,

A) The least polar component is eluted first

B) The most polar component is eluted first

C) Increasing the mobile phase polarity decreases the elution time

D) Decreasing the mobile phase polarity increases the elution time


Correct Answer: B) The most polar component is eluted first



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Question 43


In Flame Ionisation Detectors, the sample is pyrolysed using:

A) Oxygen and Helium

B) Hydrogen and Air

C) Hydrogen and Helium

D) Methane and Oxygen


Correct Answer: B) Hydrogen and Air



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Question 44


Thermogravimetric analysis is a useful technique in detecting:

A) Phase transitions

B) Levels of crystallinity

C) Thermal stability

D) Volatile components


Correct Answer: D) Volatile components



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Question 45


Horseradish peroxidase is a commonly used reagent in which of the following analytical techniques?

A) ELISA

B) RIA

C) LC-MS

D) Nephelometry


Correct Answer: A) ELISA



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Question 46


Deviations in Beer-Lambert Law occur when:

A) Concentration changes cause refractive index variation

B) The analyte has no interaction with the solvent

C) The solution is dilute

D) Monochromatic radiation is used


Correct Answer: A) Concentration changes cause refractive index variation



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Question 47


Tetramethylsilane is used as internal standard in NMR spectroscopy because:

A) Its protons are less shielded

B) It is water soluble

C) It gives a single sharp peak

D) All the above statements are true


Correct Answer: C) It gives a single sharp peak



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Question 48


Which type of formulation interactions can be detected by X-ray Diffraction?

A) Gas-phase reactions

B) Solid-state interactions

C) Liquid-liquid interactions

D) Electrochemical reactions


Correct Answer: B) Solid-state interactions



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Question 49


Choose the correct logical sequence of instrument qualification in Quality Assurance:

A) DQ, IQ, OQ, PQ

B) DQ, IQ, PQ, OQ

C) DQ, PQ, IQ, OQ

D) DQ, OQ, PQ, IQ


Correct Answer: A) DQ, IQ, OQ, PQ



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Question 50


Which among the following ICH Quality Guidelines relate to stability testing of pharmaceuticals?

A) ICH Q1

B) ICH Q2

C) ICH Q7

D) ICH Q9


Correct Answer: A) ICH Q1



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Question 51


The number of peptide groups in oxytocin

A) 7

B) 9

C) 8

D) 10


Correct Answer: C) 8



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Question 52


Which buffer maintains blood pH (~7.4)?

A) Phosphate buffer

B) Bicarbonate buffer

C) Acetate buffer

D) Ammonia buffer


Correct Answer: B) Bicarbonate buffer



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Question 53


Okazaki fragments are joined together by

A) DNA ligase

B) Helicase

C) Primase

D) Polymerase


Correct Answer: A) DNA ligase



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Question 54


Which of the following compounds yields a yellow precipitate when warmed with a mixture of iodine in aqueous sodium hydroxide?

A) Benzophenone

B) Benzaldehyde

C) Propanal

D) Acetophenone


Correct Answer: D) Acetophenone



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Question 55


Where is the transition state found in a free energy diagram?

A) With the intermediates

B) With the products

C) At the highest energy point on the curve

D) At the lowest energy point on the curve


Correct Answer: C) At the highest energy point on the curve



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Question 56


Which statement is correct about Simmons Smith reaction

A) Reaction proceeds via carbocation

B) Reaction is stereospecific

C) Reaction gives rearranged products

D) Reaction occurs in alkanes


Correct Answer: B) Reaction is stereospecific



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Question 57


Which one of the following is a mono carboxylic acid?

A) Malonic acid

B) Adipic acid

C) Arachidic acid

D) Maleic acid


Correct Answer: C) Arachidic acid



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Question 58


What is the systematic name of isoprene?

A) 2 methyl 1,3-butadiene

B) 3 methyl 1,2-butadiene

C) 3 methyl 1,3-butadiene

D) 2 methyl 1,2-butadiene


Correct Answer: A) 2 methyl 1,3-butadiene



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Question 59


The nitrogenous base that is never found in the genetic code

A) Adenine

B) Guanine

C) Thymine

D) Cytosine


Correct Answer: C) Thymine



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Question 60


Iron in the mucosal cells binds with the protein

A) Transferrin

B) Ferritin

C) Ceruloplasmin

D) Hemosiderin


Correct Answer: B) Ferritin



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Question 61


A drug that increases insulin sensitivity via PPAR-γ activation is

A) Repaglinide

B) Glipizide

C) Pioglitazone

D) Sitagliptin


Correct Answer: C) Pioglitazone



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Question 62


The structural modification that improves selectivity of β2 agonists?

A) Addition of carboxylic group

B) Bulky substituent on amino group

C) Small alkyl group

D) Removal of hydroxyl group


Correct Answer: B) Bulky substituent on amino group



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Question 63


The unique Local Anaesthetic that does not contain a tertiary amine

A) Lidocaine

B) Procaine

C) Tetracaine

D) Benzocaine


Correct Answer: D) Benzocaine



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Question 64


One of the primary precursors for the synthesis of Diazepam is

A) 2-amino-5-chloro benzophenone

B) 2-acetyl-5-chloro benzoic acid

C) 2-amino-5-nitro benzoic acid

D) 2-acetyl-5-chloro-2'-fluorobenzophenone


Correct Answer: A) 2-amino-5-chloro benzophenone



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Question 65


The following chemical structure is of

A) Pyrimethamine

B) Methadone

C) Trimethoprim

D) Amiloride


Correct Answer: C) Trimethoprim



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Question 66


The anti-HIV drug that inhibits protease enzyme

A) Acyclovir

B) Ritonavir

C) Oseltamivir

D) Remdesivir


Correct Answer: B) Ritonavir



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Question 67


One of the primary antidotes for non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs

A) Dantrolene

B) Succinylcholine

C) Rocuronium

D) Neostigmine


Correct Answer: D) Neostigmine



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Question 68


The drug of choice to treat edema resulting from liver cirrhosis

A) Triamterene

B) Tripamide

C) Spironolactone

D) Amiloride


Correct Answer: C) Spironolactone



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Question 69


Substitution at position 2 of Phenothiazine nucleus with chlorine results in

A) Increased activity

B) Decreased activity

C) Loss of activity

D) No effect on activity


Correct Answer: A) Increased activity



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Question 70


Which standard parameter is crucial in evaluating docking accuracy?

A) Ligand efficiency

B) Root Mean Square Deviation

C) Log P value

D) Number of hydrogen bonds


Correct Answer: B) Root Mean Square Deviation



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Question 71


A preparation containing Diamorphine will be classified as an opium derivative only if:

A) It exceeds 0.2%

B) It exceeds 0.1%

C) It exceeds 0.01%

D) No minimum limit


Correct Answer: D) No minimum limit



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Question 72


Which among the following is a spurious drug?

A) Drugs not labelled in the prescribed manner

B) Drugs labelled with the name of false manufacturer

C) Drugs labelled with false claims

D) Drugs containing colour other than those prescribed


Correct Answer: B) Drugs labelled with the name of false manufacturer



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Question 73


Proof spirit contains

A) 48.3% w/w ethyl alcohol

B) 57.5% v/v ethyl alcohol

C) 57.1% v/v ethyl alcohol

D) 58.5% v/v ethyl alcohol


Correct Answer: C) 57.1% v/v ethyl alcohol



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Question 74


Why is line clearance performed before starting a new batch?

A) To ensure no remains of previous product or documentation are present

B) To confirm preventive maintenance

C) To confirm HVAC system working properly

D) To validate yield reconciliation


Correct Answer: A)



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Question 75


Non-obviousness is a concept specifically used to determine which requirement for patent grant?

A) Novelty

B) Inventive step

C) Industrial applicability

D) All of the above


Correct Answer: B) Inventive step



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Question 76


According to ICH Q1A (R2), a significant change for drug product is defined as all except:

A) A 5% assay change

B) Failure of pH acceptance criteria

C) Softening of suppository or melting of cream

D) Failure of dissolution criteria for 12 units


Correct Answer: C) Softening of suppository or melting of cream



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Question 77


Stokes' law applies to suspension only when Reynolds number is

A) Below 0.22

B) Between 1 and 0.1

C) Below 0.25

D) Below 0.2


Correct Answer: D) Below 0.2



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Question 78


Which among the following is a hydrophilic colloid?

A) Insulin

B) Tween 80 in water

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Sulphur sol


Correct Answer: A) Insulin



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Question 79


Reciprocal of mobility refers to

A) Kinematic viscosity

B) Apparent viscosity

C) Absolute viscosity

D) Plastic viscosity


Correct Answer: D) Plastic viscosity



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Question 80


Spreading coefficient is positive when:

A) Surface tension of sublayer liquid is greater than the sum of spreading liquid surface tension and interfacial tension

B) Sum of spreading liquid ST and interfacial tension is greater than sublayer ST

C) Interfacial tension is greater than sublayer ST

D) Interfacial tension is less than sublayer ST


Correct Answer: A)



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Question 81


The immunoglobulin with a secretory component at mucous membrane and prevents infection by inhibiting adherence of microorganisms

A) IgE

B) IgA

C) IgD

D) IgM


Correct Answer: B) IgA



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Question 82


The cell made by fusing an antibody-producing B cell with a cancerous cell

A) Plasmocytoma

B) Monoclonal antibody

C) Monomer

D) Hybridoma


Correct Answer: D) Hybridoma



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Question 83


In absorption kinetics, a plot of amount of drug remaining to be absorbed against time yields a straight line. Such kinetics is

A) Zero order kinetics

B) Second order kinetics

C) Mixed order kinetics

D) First order kinetics


Correct Answer: A) Zero order kinetics



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Question 84


The test organism used for microbiological assay of Gentamicin

A) Bacillus pumilus 14884

B) Klebsiella pneumoniae 10031

C) Staphylococcus epidermidis 12228

D) Staphylococcus aureus 29737


Correct Answer: C) Staphylococcus epidermidis 12228



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Question 85


The fraction of drug removed from plasma in a single passage through organ is known as

A) Clearance

B) Extraction ratio

C) Volume of distribution

D) Elimination


Correct Answer: B) Extraction ratio



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Question 86


Low molecular weight compounds from environment or drugs acting as immunogens by combining with larger molecules are

A) Tolerogens

B) Antigens

C) Haptens

D) Antibodies


Correct Answer: C) Haptens



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Question 87


A clean room in which particle count is not more than 100 per cubic foot of 0.5 µm

A) Class 100 clean room

B) Class 50 clean room

C) Class 1000 clean room

D) Class 10000 clean room


Correct Answer: A) Class 100 clean room



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Question 88


The following method of sterilization is not used for catgut

A) Dry heat sterilization

B) Ionising radiation

C) Sterilization using chemicals

D) Heat sterilization in presence of moisture


Correct Answer: D) Heat sterilization in presence of moisture



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Question 89


Which among the following is not a characteristic feature of nonlinear pharmacokinetics?

A) Elimination half-life increases at high dose

B) AUC proportional to dose

C) Does not follow first order kinetics at high dose

D) Dose dependent


Correct Answer: B) AUC proportional to dose



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Question 90


Insulin immobilized using degradable calcium phosphate nanocrystals on ceramic core belongs to category of

A) Aquasome

B) Chelate

C) Three-dimensional gel

D) Liposome


Correct Answer: A) Aquasome



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Question 91


The antimicrobial preservative used in ophthalmic preparation is all except

A) Benzalkonium chloride

B) Phenylmercuric nitrate

C) Benzyl alcohol

D) Methylparaben


Correct Answer: C) Benzyl alcohol



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Question 92


Which excipient is commonly involved in Maillard reactions in pharmaceuticals?

A) Starch

B) Lactose

C) Talc

D) Magnesium stearate


Correct Answer: B) Lactose



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Question 93


Which statement about triethanolamine soap is incorrect?

A) Formed by neutralization of fatty acid

B) Acts as anionic emulsifying agent

C) Suitable for O/W emulsion

D) Stable in strongly acidic conditions


Correct Answer: D) Stable in strongly acidic conditions



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Question 94


Which material is least suitable for fluidized bed drying?

A) Free-flowing granules

B) Cohesive fine particles

C) Dense particles

D) Crystalline solids


Correct Answer: B) Cohesive fine particles



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Question 95


Permissible limit of bacterial endotoxins in sterile water for injection

A) Not more than 0.25 units/mL

B) Not more than 0.025 units/mL

C) Not more than 0.15 units/mL

D) Not more than 0.015 units/mL


Correct Answer: A) Not more than 0.25 units/mL



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Question 96


What is the flow pattern produced in a paddle mixer during liquid mixing?

A) Axial and tangential

B) Axial or tangential

C) Radial and tangential

D) Radial or tangential


Correct Answer: C) Radial and tangential



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Question 97


Approximate particle size obtained in microencapsulation by air suspension method

A) 35 to 5000 µm

B) 2 to 5000 µm

C) 60 to 5000 µm

D) 5 to 5000 µm


Correct Answer: A) 35 to 5000 µm



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Question 98


What is the chemical nature of pyrogens?

A) Carbohydrates

B) Lipoproteins

C) Proteins

D) Lipopolysaccharides


Correct Answer: D) Lipopolysaccharides



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Question 99


Identify the propellant used in preparation of topical pharmaceutical aerosols

A) Propane

B) Trichloromonofluoromethane

C) Dichlorodifluoromethane

D) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane


Correct Answer: A) Propane



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Question 100


How does oleic acid act as a permeation enhancer in transdermal drug delivery system?

A) Enhances skin hydration

B) Forms microchannels in stratum corneum

C) Binds to drug molecules in bloodstream

D) Decreases drug solubility


Correct Answer: B) Forms microchannels in stratum corneum

F.