Monday, November 28, 2011

GATE PY 1997 Pharmacy Question Paper

GATE PY 1997 Pharmacy Question Paper


1. For each question given below, four alternatives are provided, out of
which only one is correct. W rite the correct answer on the answer script
by writing (a), (b), (c) or (d) against the respective sub-questions

1.1 The first hydrolytic product of STREPTOMYCIN with methanolic hydrochloric acid is given below. Identify the correct one.
(a) Streptidine + Streptose + N-methyl glucosamine
(b) Streptidine + methyl strepto-biosaminide dimethyl acetal
(c) Streptamine + Streptose + N-methyl glucosamine
(d) Streptamine + Steptose dimethyl acental + N-methyl glucosamine

1.2 One of the following drugs interferes with cellular metabolism, especially the synthesis of Mycolic acid. Identify.
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Pyrazinamide
(c) Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (d) Nicotinamide

1.3 A synthetic sweetening agent which is approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose and has no after taste is:
(a) saccha rin (b) aspartame (c) cyclamate (d) sorbitol

1.4 In capsules ROTOSORT is used for
(a) filling powder into capsules (b) filling liquids into capsules
(c) filling pellets into capsules (d) sorting the filled capsules

1.5 Shellac is used for the purpose of coating of tablets as
(a) polishing agent (b) film coating agent
(c) enteric coating agent
(d) sub-coating agent for sugar coating

1.6 Listed below are structures of some drugs. One of them prevents the
incorporation of PABA into Folic acid. Identify
1.7 In Quantitative T.L.C. radioactive material can be studied by
(a) visual comparison (b) densito meter
(c) gravimetry (d) Geiger counter

1.8 One of the following ingredients which improves the flow property of granules is:
(a) glidant (b) emollient (c) lubricant (d) surfactant

1.9 The wavelength source in N.M.R. spectrometer is
(a) Goniometer (b) radiofrequency oscillator
(c) high voltage generator (d) Klystron oscillator

1.10 One of the following materials is used for the preparation of master grating. Identify
(a) glass (b) iron (c) aluminium (d) teflon

1.11 Benzathine penicillin is
(a) an equimolecular composition of Amoxicillin + N.N dibenzyl ethylene diamine
(b) a molecular complexation of Benzyl penicillin+ N.N dibenzyl ethylene diamine
(c) a molecular complexation of Cloxacillin + ethylene diamine
(d) equimolecular proportion of Amoxicillin + ethylene diamine

1.12 Schick test is performed to ascertain susceptibility to
(a) tetanus (b) diphtheria (c) mumps (d) syphilis

1.13 Which of the following commonly available large volume dextrose solution for intravenous use is isotonic?
(a) 2.5% W/V (b) 5.0% W/V (c) 10% W/V (d) 20% W/V

1.14 The term bioavailability refers to the
(a) relationship between the physical and chemical properties of a drug and the systemic absorption of the drug
(b) measurement of the rat and amount of therapeutically active drug that
reaches the systemic circulation
(c) movement of drug into the body tissues over time
(d) dissolution of a drug in the gastrointestinal tract

1.15 Among the propellants used in aerosols one of the following is used for topical pharmaceutical aerosols.
(a) Trichloro monofluoro methane (b) Dichloro difluoro methane
(c) Dichloro tetra fluoro ethane (d) Propane

1.16 The principal structural component of the cell wall in bacteria is made up of (a) simple protein (b) peptidoglycan polymer
(c) complex polysaccharides (d) glycoprotein

1.17 Which of the following has the highest degree of ionization in an aqueous solution?
(a) Aspirin 3.5 pK = (b) Indomethacin 4.5 pK =
(c) Warfarin 5.2 pK = (d) Ibuprofen 5.2 pK =

1.18 Tetracyclines are avoided during pregnancy because
(a) it is teratogenic
(b) it may affect the bone growth of foetus
(c) it causes discolouration of mothers teeth
(d) it may cause abortion

1.19. The Xenobiotics that does not cause nephrotoxicity is
(a) Streptozocin (b) Cisplatin (c) Gentamycin (d) Isoniazid

1.20. Which of the following function of OPIOID receptors?
(a) decrease Nor adrenaline release (b) decrease Dopamine release
(c) decrease Serotinin release (d) decrease Serotinin release

1.21. Assume that a typical type of Cancer is susceptible to an individual drug. Listed below are some therapeutic combination of anti-cancer drugs which are rationale except one. Identify.
(a) Thiotepa and Prednisone
(b) Cyclophosphamide and 6-Mercaptopurine
(c) Doxorubicin and Methotrexate (d) Chlorambucil and Melphalan

1.22. One of the following emissions from the decay of Radio nuclides is commonly
used in sterilization. Identify
(a) Gamma (b) X-ray (c) Alpha (d) Positron

1.23. Clinically available anticancer agents have one of the underlying mechanism of
action, they act by
(a) improving body defence mechanism
(b) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
(c) receptor site blockade of cancer cell content
(d) cell growth inhibitor

1.24. Listed below are some of the common Radio nuclides used in Nuclear Pharmacy which one is generator produced?

(a) 201 T1 (b) 67 Ga (c) 133 Xe (d) 99 Tc

1.25 Smallpox Vaccine contains
(a) Living Virus Vaccinia (b) Living culture of B.C.G.
(c) Attenuated staphylococcus (d) Living Virus of Hepatitis

1.26. The solution strength of Ca in terms of mg/L for a Calcium injection which contains 5m Eq. Calcium Ca per 100 ml is given below. Identify the correct one. [At 40 wt Ca - = ]. + +
(a) 150 (b) 500 (c) 750 (d) 1000

1.27. Listed below are some of the drug intermediates. Choose the correct one for the synthesis of Procainamide.
(a) p-nitro benzyl chloride and Diethyl amino ethylamine
(b) p-nitro benzyl chloride and ethyl amino ethylamine
(c) p-nitro cinnamoyl chloride and Diethyl amino ethylamine
(d) p-nitro benzene and Diethyl amino ethylamine

1.28. Choose the correct name for Digitoxigenin.
(a) 3 ß , 14 ß , 16 ß trihydroxy cardenolide
(b) 3 ß , 12 ß , 14 ß trihydroxy cardenolide
(c) 3 ß , 14 ß dihydroxy cardenolide
(d) 1, 3, 5, 11 a , 14, 19 ß -hexahydroxy cardenolide

1.29. 2, 6-dimethyl aniline and chloro acetyl chloride are the starting compounds for the synthesis of one of the following drugs. Choose the correct one.
(a) Lidocaine (b) Prilocaine (c) Bupivacaine (d) Cinchocaine

1.30. Choose the correct geneva name for Tranyl Cypromine.
(a) (-) trans-2-Phenyl Cyclopropylamine
(b) (+) trans-2-Phenyl Cyclopropylamine
(c) ± cis-2-Phenyl Cyclopropylamine
(d) ± trans-2-Phenyl Cyclopropylamine

1.31. Intake of which of the following should be avoided by a patient taking on oral anticoagulant?
(a) Cyanocobalamin (b) Thiamine (c) Menadione (d) Tocopherol

1.32. Ellipsoidal schizolysigenous oil glands are important diagnostic of
(a) Ergot (b) Ginseng (c) Cinnamon (d) Clove

1.33. Catecholamines act by
(a) decrease the amount of glucose released into the blood
(b) increase the utilization of glucose by muscle
(c) increase the amount of glucose released into the blood
(d) decrease the amount of glucose in the muscle.

1.34. Hyoscyamine an alkaloid obtained from Atropa belladonna
(a) readily racemises to atropine with ethanolic alkali. Atropine is ± Hyoscyamine
(b) readily disintegrates into atropine with acid solution. Atropine is (-)
(c) readily rearranges into atropine with acid solution. Atropine is (+)
(d) readily racemises to atropine with ethanolic alkali. Atropine.

1.35. Identify the correct molecule which controls the biosynthesis of proteins in living organisms
(a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Purines (d) Pyrimidines

Match the following:

2. In the following subquestions match each of the items 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the left with an appropriate item on the right and indicate the answer.

2.1 Listed below are substances which are assayed by methods mentioned in (a) to (f). Match them.

(1) Ascorbic Acid Tablets I.P. (a) Fluorimetry
(2) Thiamine Hydrochloride I.P. (b) Spectrophotometry
(3) Calcium Pantothenate I.P. (c) Ceric ammonium sulphate oxidation
(4) Pyridoxine Hydrochloride I.P. (d) Complexometry
(e) Non-aqueous
(f) Gravimetry

2.2. The diagnostic features of crude drugs are given in 1-4. their descriptions are given in (a) to (f). Match them.

(1) Trichome (a) Two similar cells placed with their long axis parallel and having smaller intercellular space.

(2) Cicatrix (b) Epidermal cells which do not have any definite function
(3) Stomata (c) An elongated tubular outgrowth of an epidermal cell
(4) Mesophyll (d) Trichomes having fallen or been rubbed off leaving a scar
(e) The whole of the parenchymatous ground tissue between two
(f) Flat and has one or more rows of Palisade cells.

2.3. Some types of drugs a re listed below, the specific examples are given in (a) to (f). Match them.

(1) Anti folate (a) Vinblastine
(2) Purine analogues (b) Thioguanine
(3) Pyrimidine analogues (c) 5-Fluorouracil
(4) Antimitotic (d) Methotrexate
(e) Actinomycin
(f) Cytarabine

2.4. Heterocyclic system (1-4) and the natural products in which they are present is given in (a) to (f). Match them.

(1) Imidazole (a) Reserpine
(2) B Carboline (b) Pilocarpine
(3) Hetrosteroidal (c) Conessine
(4) Isoquinoline (d) Ergotamine
(e) Papaverine
(f) Scopolamine

2.5. Starting materials used for the synthesis of the following drugs are given (a) to (f). Match them.
(1) Mepyramine Maleate (a) Azocine and Chloromethyl cyanide

(2) Guanethidine Sulphate (b) 10-11 Dihydro-5-H. dibenz.[b-f] azepine

(3) Isoxsuprine (c) 5-Oxo 10-11 dihydro 5-H dibenz [a-d] cycloheptene

(4) Imipramine Hydrochloride (d) 4-hydroxy nor-ephedrine

(e) Benzaldehyde and 2-chlopro pyridine
(f) 4-methyl benzaldehyde and 2-amino pyridine

2.6. Listed below are some tests carried out to identify the constituents given in (a) to (f). Match them correctly.

(1) Benedict‘s test (a) Bile salt
(2) Hay‘s test (b) Calcium
(3) Gimelin‘s test (c) Bile pigments
(4) Salkowski test (d) Urea
(e) Ketone bodies
(f) Glucose

2.7. Antibiotics and their biochemical origins are given below. Match them.

(1) Cycloserine (a) Two amino acid units
(2) Cephalosporin (b) Single amino acid
(3) Neomycin (c) Sugars
(4) Erythromycin (d) Polypeptides
(e) Acetate or Propionate
(f) Polycyclic units

2.8. Match the following relationship correctly.

(1) Hypokalemia (a) Biotransformation prior to eliciting pharmacological response
(2) Spironolactone (b) Competitive antagonist of Aldosterone
(3) Rhodopsin (c) Reduction of Serum K level
(4) Prodrug (d) Vitamin A
(e) Biotin
(f) Competitive antagonist of cortisone

2.9. In parenteral products, listed below are some ingredients. Their main functions are given in (a) to (f). Match them.
(1) Thimerosal (a) Chelating agent
(2) Ascorbic Acid (b) Buffer
(3) EDTA-salt (c) Anti-oxidant
(4) Sodium Chloride (d) Anti microbial agent
(e) Vehicle
(f) Tonicity adjusting agent

2.10. Size, shape and Mode of arrangements is typical of certain Micro-organisms. Match them correctly.

(1) Streptococci (a) Comma and S shaped form
(2) Sarcina (b) Gram positive arranged in chains
(3) Bacillus Anthracis (c) Multiples of eight
(4) Vibrios and Spirilla (d) Large bacilli, rectangular and gram positive
(e) Gram negative cocci
(f) Rod shaped-Acid fast

3. Give the names of the equipments used for the following:
(a) To determine the Flash point in aerosols.
(b) To determine the particle size distribution in aerosols.
(c) To determine the Hardness of the tablets
(d) To determine the particle size in a suspension
(e) To measure the volume of particles in powers

4. (i) Mention 2 gaseous materials used for sterilization.
(ii) Name a filter used for sterilization
(iii) Name the method used for sterilization of plastic syringes.
(iv) Name an equipment which can give limited asceptic area.

5. (a) Give four important side effects of MAO inhibitors.
(b) Name a drug which is a presynaptic receptor stimulant.

6. (a) Define the following terms:
(i) Molar absorptivity
(ii) Frequency
(iii) Equivalent conductance
(b) Give only the equations for the reactions involved in the assay (IP-1985) of I.N.H.

7. Complete the following reactions by inserting the appropriate products:


Answer any TEN questions.

8. Define mottling. Give three rea sons for mottling.

9. (a) Name the causative organisms of the following infections:
(i) Intestinal and extraintestinal amoebiasis
(ii) Schistosomiasis
(iii) Filariasis
(b) Name a Macrolide antibiotic containing a lactone ring and one or more deoxy sugars which inhibits protein synthesis.

(c) A derivative of TETRACYCLINE which has greater acid and alkaline stability and slower rate of excretion. It produces higher and more prolonged blood levels. Name it.

10. Give one typical identification test each for
(a) eugenol in clove oil
(b) cardenolides of Digitalis
(c) alkaloids of Belladonna
(d) alkaloids of Ergot
(e) gycosides of Senna

11. Laboratory report of the blood analysis of a patient showed RBC count =
440000/cu mm. Hb content 11.2 gm/100 ml. Calculate the % age of Hemoglobin, % of Red cell and colour index. Comment on the condition of the patient.
Normal value. RBC count = 500000/cu mm
Hb content = 14.8 gm/100 ml.

12. Complete the following equations showing the structure of reactants and
(a) Pyrazine-2-Carboxylic acid is treated with CH OH and the resulting compound is treated with ammonia.
(b) 5-Chloro salicylic acid is treated with 2 chloro-4-nitro aniline in presence of PCl .
(c) 2-methyl-5-nitro imidazole is treated with 2-chloro ethanol, resulting
compound is benzoylated.

13. Categorize the following drugs pharmacologically and draw the heterocyclic system present in them:
(i) Imipramine (ii) Diazepam (iii) Cimetidine (iv) Dipyridamole
(v) Thiotepa

14. (a) Name four specific tests in the investigation of a suspected case of AIDS.
(b) Name the organism which is used in the microbiological assay of

15. (a) Calculate the half life for a drug formulation which is most stable at pH 2.5 at which pH, the rate constant is 5 10 s at 25°C. The drug obeys first order – - 7 1
(b) Give the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for a weak base.
(c) Define the term area under the curve.

16. (a) The UV spectrum of Benzaldehyde contains different absorption bands.
What are the electronic transition taking place to form these bands? Name
(b) Define auxochrome. Give two examples.

17. Outline the synthesis of CAFFEINE from Dimethyl urea and ethyl cyanoacetate.
Give complete steps showing the reactants and products.

18. Give a specimen lable of GENTAMICIN INJECTION [I.P.1985] as per D and C act.

19. Show how you would convert the following. Choose any other reagents if need be. Give equations.
(a) 2-4 dichloro benzoic acid to FUROSEMIDE
(b) 4-chloro benzyl cyanide and 2-chloropyridine to an antihistaminic
(c) Benzhydryl bromide to DIPHENDYDRAMINE

20. Write the reaction sequence catalyzed by the enzymes for the transfer of acyl Co-A across inner mitochondrial membrane and degradation of fatty acids.

21. (a) Give an equation and show how it can be used to measure the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt by conductometry.
(b) Give three important requirements to prepare a normal Hydrogen electrode.

22. Name the metabolic reaction and give the structure of the major metabolite formed from the following medicinal agents:
(a) Chlorpromazine (b) 6-Mercapatopurine
(c) Meperidine (d) Sulphamethoxazole
(e) Nicotinamide

23. Write the characteristic I.R. absorption bands fro the following functional groups:
(a) > C = 0 group in aldehydes (b) Free-OH group
(c) Primary amino group (d) C-Cl-stretching
(e) C-NO Aromatic

24. Write in one or two sentences the mechanism of action of the following:
(a) Isosorbide Minonitrate
(b) Sulphamethoxazole and Trimethoprim
(c) Cisplatin
(d) Chloramphenicol

25. Following Phytoconstituents are present in specific part of a crude drug. Give the botanical name and the part in which they are present.
(a) Moirphine (b) Eugenol
(c) Deserpidine (d) Dydroxy Anthracene derivatives
(e) Ergotoxine

26. Give the drug interactions for the following combination-answer in 2 sentences each.
(a) Acetazolamide and Quinidine (b) Methyl Dopa and Chlorothiazide
(c) Amphotericin-B and Digitalis glycosides (d) Ascorbic Acid and PAS
(e) Haloperidol and Rifampicin

27. Name and draw the structural formulae of a
(a) vitamin which participates in the metabolic reaction as coenzyme-A
(b) water soluble vitamin which is derived from sugar
(c) vitamin which contains Pteridine ring system and is used as an antianemic factor
(d) vitamin which as coenzyme takes part in the decarboxylation of -keto acid
(e) vitamin which forms part of NAD and NADH.

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